In one
of his articles, Mr. Jochen Katz has pointed out not just one but three
contradictions in two sets of verses of the Qur’an. Al-Baqarah 2: 97
reads as:
Say (O Prophet):
‘Whoever is an enemy to Gabriel — as it is he who revealed it (the Qur’an) on
your heart according to God’s directions, confirming the previous scriptures,
a guidance and glad tidings for those who believe….’.
While Al-Nahl 16:
101 – 103 reads as:
When We change one
verse for another — and God is fully aware of what He reveals — they say:
‘You are an imposter’. Indeed most of them know not. Say: ‘The Holy Spirit
brought it down from your Lord in truth to reassure the faithful, a guidance
and a glad tiding for those that submit’. Indeed We know that they say:
‘A mortal has taught him’. But he to whom they falsely ascribe it is a
non-Arab (an `ajamiy), while this is eloquent Arabic speech.
The three contradictions
pointed out by Mr. Katz in his brief article are:
- In 2: 97, the Qur’an
says that the revelations are brought to Muhammad (pbuh) by the angel
Gabriel, while in 16: 102, the Qur’an says that the Holy Spirit brings these
revelations to Muhammad.
- In 2: 97, the Qur’an
says that the revelations to Muhammad (pbuh) confirm the previous
scriptures, while in 16: 101, the Qur’an says that the new revelations
substitute the previous revelations.
- In 16: 103, the Qur’an
says that it is in pure Arabic language, while anyone can see that there are
a number of non-Arabic words in the Qur’an.
In the following article,
we shall present an analysis of the contents of the referred verses, with
reference to the contradictions pointed out by Mr. Katz.
‘Gabriel’ And
‘The Holy Spirit’
The Qur’an while
mentioning the source of the revelation to the Prophet (pbuh) has mentioned the
name of one angel — Gabriel — and has also referred to that source through
attributive words like ‘Ru’h al-Qudus‘ (i.e. ‘The Holy Spirit’ as in Al-Nahl
16: 102), ‘Rasu’lun Kareem‘ (i.e. ‘An Honorable Messenger’ as in Al-Takweer
81: 19), and ‘Al-Ru’h al-Ameen‘ (i.e. The Trustworthy Spirit’ as in Al-Shu`araa
26: 193). Muslims have generally interpreted these attributive words to denote
the angel called Gabriel in Al-Nahl 16: 102. The reason for this
interpretation is quite simple (and, in my opinion, not even too presumptuous).
The Muslim commentators, on the basis of the fact that there is nothing
incorrect in interpreting all the attributive phrases to be the attributes of
the angel that revealed the Qur’an to the Prophet (pbuh), are of the opinion
that all the attributive nouns refer to the same angel, who has been called ‘Gabriel’ by the Qur’an. It is the very angel Gabriel, who, at other
places has been called the ‘Ru’h al-Qudus‘, ‘Rasu’lun Kareem‘
and ‘Ru’h al-Ameen‘. Interestingly, Mr. Katz has also mentioned
this interpretation of the Muslim commentators. He writes:
BECAUSE of these two
verses Muslims usually identify the Holy Spirit with Gabriel and say that this
is just another name for Gabriel. However, in another context they completely
forget that they have made this identification already and they ALSO want
Muhammad to be the Holy Spirit and comforter who promised by Jesus in John
14-16 in order to desperately find somewhere the prophecy of Muhammad claimed
in Surah 61:6. But obviously the Holy Spirit cannot be both, Gabriel and
Muhammad.
It should, however,
remain clear that the phrase ‘Holy Spirit’ is not another name for Gabriel,
as Mr. Katz has interpreted but an attributive phrase in which a major quality
of Gabriel has been stressed[1].
In other words, the combined effect of both the verses under consideration is
that, according to the Qur’an, the name of the angel who delivered God’s
revelation to Muhammad (pbuh) was Gabriel, who is qualitatively or attributively
introduced by the Qur’an as ‘The Holy Spirit‘. This, combined
effect, as anyone can see, is not contradictory. It can only amount to a
contradiction if:
- The Qur’an had given
two different (contradicting) names of the angel, who revealed the Qur’an
to Mohammed (pbuh); or
- There is a sound basis
to believe that anyone by the name of ‘Gabriel’ could not be the ‘Holy
Spirit’.
It should, however,
remain clear that such an attributive phrase (as ‘Holy Spirit’ etc.) does
not necessarily mean that ONLY the person being so attributed is holy,
or, in other words, that holiness is restricted to the person so attributed. We
all know that the same attributive phrase, can, in a different context, imply a
different personality. Thus, in John 14: 16, if the context had so required, the
same phrase could have been used for a different personality. However, it might
be of interest to note that John 14: 16 does not entail the phrase ‘Holy
Spirit’. The King James Version translates the verse as:
And I will pray the
Father, and He shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you
forever; even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive… (John 14:
16 — 17)
The New Revised Standard
Version translates the verse as:
And I will ask the
Father and He will give you another Advocate, to be with you forever. This is
the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive… (John 14: 16 — 17)
The New English Version
translates the verse thus:
And I will ask the
Father, and he will give you another Counsellor to be with you forever– the
Spirit of truth. The world cannot accept him… (John 14: 16 — 17)
Thus, it is actually not
the phrase ‘Holy Spirit’, but ‘the Spirit of the Truth’ that the Muslims
have interpreted as a reference to the Prophet (pbuh). The phrase, ‘Holy
Spirit’ has, generally been interpreted by the Muslims as a reference to the
archangel Gabriel[2].
“Confirmation”
and “Substitution”
Mr. Katz contends that
the Qur’an cannot confirm as well as substitute the previous scriptures at the
same time. The reason for this contention is that Mr. Katz has taken the word ‘confirm’ to imply
‘to approve, to sanction or to endorse’. The word,
however, is also used to mean: ‘to verify, to prove and to certify’. Mr.
Katz is correct in contending that the Qur’an cannot “confirm”
(i.e. approve/sanction/endorse) the old scriptures as well as substitute or
abrogate them. However, I am sure all would agree that there would be no
contradiction in saying that ‘even though the Christians “confirm”
(i.e. verify/certify) circumcision to be a part of divine law, yet consider the
obligatory nature of this law to be abrogated.’ In the same way, there is
obviously no contradiction in the statement that “the Qur’an, on the one
hand “confirms” the divine origin of the previous scriptures, and on
the other, substitutes its laws with the new laws”.
Although
the above explanation should suffice in resolving the contradiction pointed out
by Mr. Katz, nevertheless, for a better understanding of the contents and the
style of the Qur’an, it may be of interest to note that the phrase ‘confirming the previous scriptures’ (Arabic:
“Musaddiqan limaa bayna
yadaihe“) has generally been used in the Qur’an as an evidence for the
prophethood of Mohammed (pbuh), presented to the people of the book. However, it
is obvious that merely the fact that the Qur’an confirms the divine origin of
the previous scriptures is not a sufficient evidence of the prophethood of
Mohammed (pbuh). In view of this fact, we are faced with the question that what
exactly is the nature of the evidence for the prophethood of Mohammed (pbuh),
given in the words: “confirming the previous scriptures”? Some of the
commentators of the Qur’an have given an answer to this question. However, to
fully understand the answer given by these commentators, it is important to note
that the Qur’an has given three different kinds of evidences to prove the
prophethood of Mohammad (pbuh) to its three different categories of addressees:
-
The
quality of the language and the content of the Qur’an are presented as an
evidence for the Quraish and the other local Arab groups of the time
of the Prophet (pbuh);
-
The
Qur’an being void of all human deficiencies — like development and
evolution in thought as well as in the presentation of that thought — is
presented as a general evidence of the Divine origin of the Qur’an; and
-
Finally,
for the Jews and the Christians of the time of the Prophet (pbuh) the
Qur’an has evidenced the prophethood and the Divine origin of the Qur’an
on the basis of the fact that the Prophet (pbuh) is a clear manifestation of
the prophecies and predictions of the Bible regarding the final prophet.
Thus,
the Qur’an has admonished the Jews and the Christians, of the time of the
Prophet (pbuh), of the fact that because the Prophet (pbuh) has come according
to the prophecies and predictions of their own books therefore, rejecting the
Prophet (pbuh), under these circumstances, would imply rejecting their own
books.
It
is in this background that these commentators have interpreted the verses
entailing the referred phrase. For instance, Al-Raazi, in his commentary “Al-Tafseer
al-Kabeer“, while explaining the referred phrase in Al-Baqarah
2: 41, writes:
There
are prophecies regarding the Mohammed (pbuh) as well as the Qur’an in the Torah
and the Gospel. Thus, belief in [the prophethood of] Mohammed (pbuh)
and in the Qur’an, in effect, confirms belief in the Torah and the Gospel….
Ibn
Katheer, in his commentary “Tafseer Ibn Katheer“, explaining the
referred phrase, in Al-Baqarah 2: 41 writes:
Abu
Al-`aaliyah has said that in the phrase “believe in that[3]
which I have revealed, which confirms that which lies with you[4]“,
God says: ‘O People of the Book, believe in that which I have revealed now,
which confirms that which existed with you’, [the Qur’an confirms the
Torah and the Gospel] because of the prophecies regarding Mohammed (pbuh),
which they [i.e. the people of the book] found written in the Torah and the
Gospel. The same opinion is also ascribed to Mujahid, Al-Rabiy`
and Qatadah.
Thus,
if seen in the correct perspective, the phrase actually implies that because the
Torah and the Gospel entailed prophecies of the coming of the Prophet (pbuh) and
the revelation of the Qur’an, the Prophet (pbuh) and the Qur’an have, in
effect, “confirmed” these prophecies of the Torah and the Gospel. It
is obvious that the word “confirmation”, in this connotation is by no means
contradictory to “substitution” or “abrogation”.
“`Arabiyyun
Mubeen” and the Use of Foreign Words
The third contradiction,
in the referred verses, which is pointed out by Mr. Katz is that in Al-Nahl
16: 103, the Qur’an has emphatically stated that it is in the pure Arabic
language, whereas anyone can see that there are a number of foreign words in the
Qur’an. In this context, Mr. Katz has given some examples as well. He writes[5]:
“Pharoah”
comes from the Egyptian language and means king or potentate. The word for
“king” in Arabic is different.
“Injil“,
which means “gospel” = “good news”, comes from the Greek
language. The correct word in Arabic is “bisharah“.
In my opinion, the above
contention is primarily due to a lack of correct understanding of the phrase “Lisaanohu
`Arabiyun Mubeen” as well as a poor appreciation of developments in
languages.
As far as the phrase ‘Arabiyun
Mubeen‘ is concerned, it should more accurately be translated as: ‘Clear
Arabic’, rather than ‘Pure Arabic’[6].
Mr. Katz has already received this response. In response to Mr. Katz’s
article, someone wrote
to him:
About Qur’an being in
“pure” Arabic. Yet another misunderstanding of quran caused by
looking a “translated” copy rather than arabic! the word “mobeen”
means clear with explanation, understandable, NOT pure (in the way you
percieve).
In response to this, Mr.
Katz wrote:
Let us look at the
context and not just at one word. Isn’t the point verse 103 makes exactly that
it cannot originate from this person charged to be behind the forgery, because
this person is a foreigner, not speaking pure Arabic, while the Qur’an is pure
Arabic? If this means not “pure” then the whole point this verse is
trying to make falls to the ground. There is no reason why a foreigner cannot
explain and speak “clearly” and “understandably”. The
contrast is “that this foreigner who doesn’t speak pure Arabic” and
the “purity of the language of the Qur’an”. And exactly this is what
Yusuf Ali says in his footnote 2143…
The major point
highlighted in Mr. Katz’s response cited above is that the context of the
verse requires that the verse be referring to the quality of language, rather
than the quality or the clarity of ideas. Therefore, the verse should be taken
to imply ‘purity of language’, rather than mere ‘clarity’ of ideas.
It is indeed true that
the context of the verse clearly requires that the implication be one of clarity
(or purity) of language, rather than that of ideas. Nevertheless, the point that
needs to be understood is that the referred verse, in response to the allegation
of the rejecters that the Qur’an is forged by a non-Arab, has stated that the
clarity of its Arabic is an evidence that it cannot be forged by a non-Arab.
I am sure that Mr. Katz
would agree that it is not the lack of words borrowed from other languages that
makes good and pure literature, but the clarity and the purity of the dialect.
In fact, words of foreign-origin, when adopted by the literati of a language,
become a part of that language. The
Qur’an, in the referred verse has indeed stressed the clarity and the purity
of the dialect to refute the allegation of the rejecters that a non-Arab has
forged the Qur’an. Nevertheless, the fact that some of the words of the
Qur’an are of a foreign-origin does not refute the purity of the Qur’anic
Arabic, unless it is proven that such words had not already been adopted by the
Arabs in there speech and/or literature.
Obviously, the clarity
and the style of the language of “Julius Caesar” is a clear evidence of the
fact that its writer has a classical English background. The mere fact that ‘Caesar’ is a word of Roman (?) origin does not make Shakespeare any less an
English writer. In fact, if any one criticizes Shakespeare for not using ’emperor’ or
‘ruler’ (or any other pure English synonym for ‘Caesar’) in place of ‘Caesar’, to make it pure English, such a person
not only has no sense of literature but is not even aware of the fact that the
word ‘Caesar’ was used in the English language not merely to imply ‘ruler’ or ’emperor’, but as a title for the Roman emperors.
Exactly in the same
manner, any one who thinks that the Qur’an has used any foreign words actually
is mistaken by the fact that some of the words in the Qur’an have a
foreign-origin. Nevertheless, the Qur’an has used only such foreign-origin
words, which had not only been introduced in the Arabic language but were also
commonly used by the Arabs. Thus, it should be kept in mind that it is not the
origin of words used by a literature, that effects the purity or otherwise of
that literature. On the contrary, it is whether such words of foreign-origin
have been adopted in the language or not. If such words have generally been
adopted as a part of the language, usage of such words would not affect the
purity of the language or the dialect. For instance, when I say:
-
Democracy is a good
system of government
-
I hate Biology.
-
Islam does not support
slavery.
-
The Qur’an is a book
of God.
No one, in his right
senses should criticize these sentences to be less than pure English. Even
though the words: ‘democracy’, ‘system’, ‘biology’, ‘Islam’, and ‘Qur’an’ are all words of a foreign-origin, yet because of the fact that
they have been adopted in the English language, their usage, now, does not
affect the purity of the language.
Keeping the above
explanation in perspective, it should be clear that usage of all such words,
even if they are of a foreign-origin, that had already been adopted by the Arabs
do not affect the purity of the Qur’anic Arabic. In fact, not using such words
when the context and the content so requires would not only be against eloquence
but would reduce the purity and the clarity of the dialect. For instance,
substituting ‘pure’ English synonyms for the words ‘democracy’, ‘system’, ‘biology’,
‘Islam’, and ‘Qur’an’ (or Koran) in the
sentences above, shall not only ruin the structure of these sentences but would
also, in most cases, alter the connotation of these sentences.
The word ‘Injil[7]‘
is a ta`reeb (an Arabization) of the Greek word “yoo-ang-ghel-id’-z”
or “yoo-ang-ghel’-ee-on” which in the Greek language means ‘Good
news’. In the Arabic language, however, Injil does not mean ‘good
news’. In fact, in the Arabic language, ‘Injil‘ does not have any
meaning at all. The word is used merely as an Arabic title (or name) for the
book that was revealed on Jesus (pbuh). Had the Qur’an used the word ‘Basharah‘
(the Arabic word for ‘Good News’) in place of ‘Injil‘, no one
would have understood it to imply the book revealed on Jesus (pbuh), as that
book was (and is) not called the ‘Basharah‘ in the Arabic language[8].
The same is the case with “Fir`awn” (Pharaoh). The word is not used
in the Arabic language to imply ‘a king’. On the contrary, it is used as a
title for the Egyptian rulers. All such words like ‘Injil‘, ‘Tawraat‘,
‘Fir`awn‘ etc. are adopted and used in the Arabic language, exactly
in the same way as the words ‘Islam‘, ‘Qur’an‘, ‘Jihad‘
etc are used in the English language. Translating such words or replacing them
with synonyms of the English language is likely to create more confusion than
purity of language.
It should be interesting
to note that if the Qur’an were to replace all nouns of foreign-origin with
their meanings (in their original language), it would then have been more a book
of riddles than guidance to mankind. Consider the following statement:
After God will hear,
Father of the multitude was blessed with laughter. Let him add and heel
catcher are of the family of Father of the multitude from the seed of
laughter. (ooops!!!)
Don’t laugh. This
ain’t a joke. It is only a completely translated version of:
After Ishmael, Abraham
was blessed with Isaac. Joseph and Jacob are of the family of Abraham from the
seed of Isaac.
Translating or replacing
words like ‘Injil‘, ‘Tawraat‘, ‘Fir`awn‘ etc.
with their ‘pure’ Arabic synonyms would have had an effect no different from
the one demonstrated above.
In view of the preceding
discussion, to establish his contention that the Qur’an has used non-Arabic
words, Mr. Katz needs to establish that such foreign words had not already been
adopted and used in the Arabic language. The mere presence of words of
foreign-origin, if these words had already been adopted and were generally used
by the Arabs, do not, in any way, adulterate the purity of the Qur’anic
Arabic.
© Copyright May 2000. All Rights Reserved with the Author
[1]
For further explanation, please refer to Zamakhshuri‘s explanation
of the related verse, in his commentary ‘Al-Kashaaf‘, Al-Raazi‘s
explanation of Al-Baqarah 2: 87, in his commentary Al-Tafseer al-Kabeer‘
etc.
It may be of interest to note here that even in the Greek version,
the word used in this verse is “aletheia“, whereas the word used
for “Holy Spirit” is “haglos“. The word “Holy Spirit” has
been used at a number of places in the New Testament. Even in John, the word
can be seen at: 1: 33, 7: 39, 14: 26, 17: 11 and 20: 22 and at each of these
instances, it is the translation of the word “haglos“.
However, it may be contended here that the word used in John 14: 17,
although is not “haglos“, but it does imply “haglos“,
as is mentioned in John 14: 26. Nevertheless, this contention, could only be
made by making the same ‘presumption’, which Muslim scholars have made
in explaining the issue under consideration.
i.e. the Qur’an.
i.e. the Torah.
This is also one of the points stipulated in the Encyclopedia
Britannica. The Encyclopedia writes:
It is often emphasized that Muhammad brought
to his people “an Arabic Qur`an”; i.e., a book or
set of recitations in the Arabs’ own language comparable to those of
Judaism and Christianity. Also the vocabulary of the Qur`an is
overwhelmingly of Arabic origin, but there are, nevertheless, borrowed
words, mostly from Hebrew and Syriac, bearing witness to Muhammad’s
debt to Judaism and Christianity. These loan words are primarily technical
terms such as injil, “gospel” (Greek evangelion); taurat,
“the law, or Torah” of Judaism; Iblis, “the
Devil” (Greek diabolos); or translations or adaptations of
theological terms such as amana, “to believe” (Hebrew or
Aramaic); salat, “prayer” (probably Syriac). Such
explanations are usually regarded with suspicion by Muslims, since
orthodox doctrine holds that the language of the Qur`an is the
purest Arabic. (Note on “The Qur’an”)
Although, as we shall see later, it is a fact, even if it is not
mentioned in the verse under consideration, that Qur’an is undoubtedly in
pure Arabic.
It may be noted that when words or phrases are adopted in another
language, their pronunciation may be altered to suit the style and the
convenience of the speakers of the borrowing language. For instance, ‘democracy’,
‘biology’ etc. have been slightly changed from their
original pronunciations.
The same is the case with the word ‘Tawraat‘ (Torah) in
the Arabic language. The word does not imply ‘law’ in the Arabic
language. It is used merely as a title for the book revealed to Moses (pbuh).
The Christian & the Jewish Concept of the Holy Spirit

