When did Pharaoh Command the Killing of the Sons?

In one of his articles[1]

Mr. Jochen Katz has pointed out a contradiction in Ghaafir 40: 23 — 25

and Ta Ha 20: 38 — 39.

Mr. Katz writes that according to Ghaafir 40: 23 — 25, Pharaoh is

reported to have ordered the killing of the sons of the Hebrews after Moses

approached him with the Truth of God; while according to Ta Ha 20: 38 —

39, Pharaoh commanded his men to kill the sons of the Jews, when Moses was only

an infant and had not received any revelation of God.

I have read this one of Mr. Katz’s criticism quite a few times but have

completely failed to figure out the contradiction in the two sets of verses. One

set of verses states that the Israelites were persecuted by the Pharaoh at the

time that Moses (pbuh) was born, while the second set of verses states that the

Pharaoh ordered the persecution of the Israelite boys after the prophethood of

Moses as well.

Where is the contradiction?

I really could not understand why Mr. Katz considers the two persecutions to

be mutually exclusive? Does Mr. Katz believe that the Pharaoh was allowed, by

his laws, to persecute the Israelites only once?

I would request Mr. Katz to clarify his stance.

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