Title: The Muslim Concept of Jesus Christ Question: I have been pondering the question of Jesus Christ for some time. Although many concepts about who Jesus was (from an Islamic perspective) are clear there are still some parts that are vague to me. My questions are numerous and you've, probably, already dealt with many of these questions but please bear with me, especially with the most simplistic of my questions. I am looking for a definitive, comprehensive understanding/concept of Christ from the Islamic perspective. Also, I read several articles that come from www.mostmerciful.com , it was too much for me to cite them I hope that won't burden you any. My questions are as follows: -Who was Jesus? -Was he a messenger or prophet or both? -What was his role, job/mission/goal/purpose? Was it to purify what had been corrupted in the Old Testament? -How closely does the "Muslim Jesus" relate to the Biblical Jesus? Consider this question based on St. Paul's writings, the 4 writers (Mathew, Mark, Luke & John) and what is ascribed to Jesus himself. -Did he call himself the son of God as did the Jews of his day? Did he call God his Father as did the Jews of his time? -How accurate is this statement by the author of the article: "Lo ! God said: `O Jesus! Verily I shall cause thee to die , and shall exalt thee unto me, and cleanse thee of those who are bent on denying the truth; and I shall place those who follow thee above those who are bent on denying the truth, unto the day of resurrection. In the end unto Me you all must return, and I shall judge between you with regard to all on which you were wont to differ."- [3:55] Muhammed Asad's translation. In above Allah clearly informs that He will complete Jesus' life on earth, and this is confirmed again, namely that Jesus had to die a natural death, when we are reminded through Jesus himself stating on the Last Day: "I did not say to them aught save what Thou didst enjoin me with: That serve Allah, my Lord and your Lord, and I was a witness of them so long as I was among them, but when Thou didst CAUSE ME TO DIE , Thou wert the watcher over them, and Thou art witness of all things" (5:117 M.H.Shakir) In above verse Jesus' statement that : "..when Thou didst cause me to die.." is confirming what Allah had earlier said to him in 3:55: "..Verily I shall cause thee to die... " In other words Jesus was neither crucified nor taken up into heaven but Allah caused him to die a natural death, i.e. fully completed his life span. -First, are the author's statements accurate? In 5:117, where is Jesus speaking from? Is he speaking in terms of the future of the Last Day? What are the implications of verse 5:117? Is the above an accurate translation? Did Jesus complete his life span on earth? -Did Jesus live to an old age? Will he live to an old age when he "returns?" According to only one translation of the Qur'an, the word "kahelan" is translated as old age. I have been told that this word can only mean "old age" and not "maturity" as most translators of the Qur'an have rendered it. This is the referred verse with the old age rendering: When Allah will say: O Isa son of Marium! Remember My favor on you and on your mother, when I strengthened you I with the holy Spirit, you spoke to the people in the cradle and I when of old age, and when I taught you the Book and the wisdom and the Taurat and the Injeel; and when you determined out of clay a thing like the form of a bird by My permission, then you breathed into it and it became a bird by My permission, and you healed the blind and the leprous by My permission; and when you brought forth the dead by My permission; and when I withheld the children of Israel from you when you came to them with clear arguments, but those who disbelieved among them said: This is nothing but clear enchantment. (5:110) M.H. Shakir -The argument was even laid out that this proves the Second Coming of Jesus. The reasoning is that Jesus did not leave the earth at an old age so it can only mean that he's coming back. I find this argument hard to believe. Please shed some light. 33 years old cannot be deemed "old age" even in Jesus' time when life expectancy was much shorter than now, so what is the correct translation? -Can you explain the meaning of Jesus being raised? Allah raised Jesus to Himself, was does that mean? On what basis do those who believe that Jesus was raised alive, in whole body, up to Heaven, stand on? What are the origins of those beliefs? How do we know what "Ra'faa" means? Was it a physical "raising"? Was it exaltation? Was he dead, if he were raised whole body? Was he alive? If he were raised in whole body, dead or alive, where would his body be? Does not Sura 2:253 support the idea that Jesus was raised physically? It seems to separate the prophets major experiences, one spoke to God, others were raised in honor (exalted) and that Jesus was given clear signs and strengthened with Holy Spirit. It's obvious that all the prophets, messengers and apostles are honored/exalted, some to higher degrees than others (possibly) but the referred verse seems to make a distinction between them. If it were meant that Jesus was "raised" as in exalted then wouldn't he just been included in that sentence? The author states the following: Here Jesus clearly mentions two periods, one in which he dwelt among his people, and the other in which Allah caused him to die. There is no other period mentioned here which informs of a stage of being taken up and stationed in heaven temporarily. Furthermore in 19:31 he says: "And He hath made me blessed wheresoever I be and hath enjoined on me Prayer (Salat) and Charity (Zakat)as long as I live." (19:31) In above verse the words "..as long as I live.." bear some importance. Jesus is to establish Salat and give Zakat AS LONG AS HE LIVES. Now if we accept that Jesus is taken up into heaven alive, then how is he performing these activities up there? He mentions that Allah has enjoined Salat and Zakat on him AS LONG AS HE LIVES . Now some one can say that in heaven he may be performing Salat. But what about Zakat? Are there any Orphans and Unfortunate persons in heaven as well to whom Jesus is paying Zakat? Does God have any poor people in heaven too? Giving Zakat in heaven would say that in heaven there are poor people! Does this make any sense?! The above verse is very clear in informing that as long as Jesus lived this earth, he performed these activities, i.e. Salat and Zakat, and Allah caused him to die a natural death. Now we come to the other issue which creates confusion for people, that is, Jesus being raised unto God. He quotes M. Asad: Translation by M. Asad: Nay, God exalted him unto Himself - and God is indeed almighty, wise. 4: 158 Commentary Number 172 by M. Asad to the above verse reads: Cf. 3:55, where God says to Jesus, "Verily, I shall cause thee to die, and shall exalt thee to Me." The verb rafa'ahu (lit., "he raised him" or "elevated him") has always, whenever the act of raf' ("elevating") of human being is attributed to God, the meaning of "honouring" or "exalting". Nowhere in the Qur'an is there any warrant for the popular belief that God has "taken up" Jesus bodily, in his lifetime, into heaven. The expression "God exalted him unto Himself" in the above verse denotes the elevation of Jesus to the realm of God's special grace - a blessing in which all prophets partake, as it is evident from 19:57, where the verb rafa'nahu ("We exalted him") is used with regard to the Prophet Idris, (See also Muhammad Abduh in Manar III, 316 f., and VI, 20f.) The "nay" (bal) at the beginning of the sentence is meant to stress the contrast between belief of the Jesus that they had put Jesus to a shameful death on the cross and the fact of God's having "exalted him unto Himself." Is Muhammad Asad correct in his translation and commentary vs. Yusuf Ali's (below)? Translation by Yusuf Ali: Nay Allah raised him up unto Himself; and Allah is Exalted in Power Wise. 4: 158 Commentary number 664 by Yusuf Ali to the above verse, as it appears in the original NON REVISED 1977 edition: There is difference of opinion as to the exact interpretation of this verse. The words are: The Jews did not kill Jesus, but God raised him up (rafa'u) to Himself. One school holds that Jesus did not die the usual human death, but still lives in the body in heaven; another holds that he did die (v. 120) but not when he was supposed to have to be crucified, and that his being "raised up" unto God means that instead of being disgraced as a malefactor, as the Jews intended, he was on the contrary honoured by God as His Apostle; see also next verse. The same word rafa'a is used in association with honour in connection with Mustafa in xciv. 4. Another comparison: Translation by Yusuf Ali: And (Jesus) shall be a Sign (for the coming of) the Hour (of Judgment): therefore have no doubt about the (Hour) but follow ye Me: this is a Straight Way. Commentary number 4662 by Yusuf Ali to the above verse reads: This is understood to refer to the second coming of Jesus in the Last Days before the Resurrection, when he will destroy the false doctrines that pass under his name, and prepare the way for the universal acceptance of Islam, the Gospel of Unity and Peace, the Straight Way of the Qur'an. Please Note: The name of JESUS is mentioned by the translator within the brackets ( ). The name of Jesus does not appear in the original Arabic Text. The term DAJJAL is also not to be found in the Glorious Qur'an nor the supposed Battle between him and Jesus. Translator Abdullah Yusuf Ali was a Musta'aliyan Shiah. b) Translation by M. Asad: AND, BEHOLD, this [divine writ] is indeed a means to know [that] the Last Hour [is bound to come]; (41) hence, have no doubt whatever about it, but follow Me: this [alone] is a straight way. Commentary Number 41 by M. Asad to the above verse reads: Whereas most of the commentators regard the pronoun hu in innahu as relating to Jesus and, consequently, interpret the above phrase as "he is indeed a means to know [i.e., an indication of the coming of] the Last Hour", some authorities - e.g., Qatadah, Al-Hasan Al-Basri and Said ibn Jubayr (all of them quoted by Tabari, Badhawi and Ibn Kathir) - relate the pronoun to the Quran, and understand the phrase in the sense adopted in my rendering. The specific mention of the Last Hour in the above context is meant to stress man's ultimate responsibility before the Creator and, therefore, the fact that worship is due to Him alone: and so this parenthetic passage follows logically upon the mention of the false deification of Jesus. Please make some commentary on the accuracy of both these individuals and any corrections you may want to add. He continues... "That they said (in boast) We killed Christ Jesus the son of Mary the Apostle of God..." (4:157) But Allah confirmed in the Qur'an that Jesus did not live a cursed life nor died a cursed death but on the contrary he enjoys an exalted and honourable status from Allah. This is what is said in 3:55, that: "..O Jesus! Verily I shall cause thee to die,and shall EXALT thee unto me.." The word in above Ayah is which means elevate you or exalt you. The word literally means 'to raise or elevate', but in the Qur'an it has been used in many verses to convey the meaning of 'Raising one's ranks or status in the sight of Allah', and not physical raising up. Some verses are produced here to show that the meaning of is to raise in ranks and exalt someone. The author continues to use other verses to prove the meaning of "raise." These are the verse numbers 94:4, 19:56, 7:176 and others. Is he correct? He then makes this statement: Now if we were to accept the understanding that Jesus was physically raised 'to Allah' then this would mean that Allah is sitting someplace in heaven and one needs to travel up to him. Such an idea about God is un Quranic and is an invention of Jewish and Christian theology, where they have a concept of 'Holy father in heaven'. But the Qur'an on the other hands informs us clearly that Allah (God) is not sitting someplace high up in heaven but: "..He is with you wherever you are.." (57:4) "..Nowhere is there a secret counsel between three persons but He is the fourth of them, nor (between) five but He is the sixth of them, nor less than that nor more BUT HE IS WITH THEM WHERESOEVER THEY ARE.." (58:7) "..We are nearer to him than (his) jugular vein." (50:16) "And We are nearer to it( the human soul) than you, BUT YOU DO NOT SEE." (56:85) The above verses clearly negate the concept of a 'Father (or God situated) in Heaven' or God confined to a space, so that to reach him you need to travel up into heaven.This concept that God is confined in heaven is a Jewish and Christian idea, clearly mentioned at many places in the Bible. But the Qu'ran does not uphold this view and on the contrary clearly negates it. God is not restricted to time and space but His presence is everywhere, all the time but we cannot see or comprehend it.So again the idea of God stationed someplace in heaven and Jesus ascending unto Him is not verified by the Qur'an. "Nay God raised him to Himself, and God is Exalted in Power Wise." (4:158) In above Allah nullifies the claim of opponents of Jesus that he was cursed being crucified on the cross, but confirms that his status is honoured and exalted.This is what is meant by and what was previously confirmed by Allah in 3:55: What if anything can you say about his understanding and his point being made? -Yusuf Ali translates 43:61 as: And (Jesus) shall be a Sign (for the coming of) the Hour (of Judgment): therefore have no doubt about the (Hour), but follow ye Me: this is a Straight Way. How accurate is this rendering? This verse is a popular choice for those who advocate the Second Coming. Can you expound on the following verse, I know there's some disagreement on the exact meaning. The author states: The verse quoted from Abdullah Yusuf Ali's translation, which mentions Jesus as being a Sign for the coming of the Hour and implying that before the last day he will descend to earth once again, is not a correct representation from the Arabic. The verse in Yusuf Ali's translation says: "And (Jesus) shall be a Sign (for the coming of) the Hour (of Judgment): therefore have no doubt about the (Hour) but follow ye Me: this is a Straight Way." (43:61) But in Arabic it says: "And most surely he (Jesus) is knowledge of the hour, therefore have no doubt about it and follow me: this is the right path."(43:61 M.H.Shakir) Here it says that He (Jesus) is i.e. Knowledge of the Hour. Now in the Qur'an the only Messenger who is mentioned by name to be questioned by Allah on the last day, and giving his answers to them is none else but Jesus (p). It is through his answers in the Qur'an that we are informed about the or Knowledge of what is going to happen in that Hour, i.e. the Day of Judgement. And that is clarified through the Quran when it describes the complete manner what Jesus will be questioned about and his replies concerning the Christians, thus he is conveying that knowledge about the hour to us in the Quran so that we can amend our lives before hand (In case we are having wrong concepts about his personality as the Christians do)... The knowledge of what is happening on that hour is related with Jesus in the Qur'an as he is the only messenger who is mentioned by name in being questioned on the Last Day, and through his answers we are getting the knowledge of what is going to happen on that hour. -It is obvious that the Qur'an does not say that Jesus was substituted on the cross. However, there is one popular translation that claims that that's exactly what happened: ...They said, "We killed the Messiah Jesus, son of Mary, the messenger of God." They did not kill him, nor did they crucify him, but the likeness of him was put on another man (and they killed that man)... (Qur'an, 4:157) THE NOBLE QUR'AN Translated by Dr. Muhammad Taqi-ud-Din Al-Hilali and Dr. Muhammad Muhsin Khan. Published by DARUSSALAM, Publishers and Distributors, P. O. Box 22743, Riyadh, 11416, Kingdom of Saudi Arabia. The translators didn't even have enough scruples to put parentheses around ...but the likeness of him was put on another man... This cannot possibly be a correct rendering no matter what Ahadiths say. I wish all who read this write to the publishers and harshly condemn this horrible and erroneous insertion. It's reminiscent of what the Bible writers have done. Am I wrong in my understanding? Am I being too hard on this particular translation? -Does Sura 61:6 support the idea that Jesus died before Muhammad arrival? Can you explain this part of it? -Was Jesus nailed to the cross but didn't die on it? I can't believe that this could be true but here again are the contentions of two translators: Translation by Yusuf Ali: That they said (in boast) "We killed Christ Jesus the son of Mary the Apostle of Allah"; but they killed him not nor crucified him but so it was made to appear to them and those who differ therein are full of doubts with no (certain) knowledge but only conjecture to follow for of a surety they killed him not. 663 Commentary Number 663 by Yusuf Ali reads: The end of the life of Jesus on earth is as much involved in mystery as his birth, and indeed the greater part of his private life, except the three main years of his ministry. It is not profitable to discuss the many doubts and conjectures among the early Christian sects and among Muslim theologians. The Orthodox Christian Churches make it a cardinal point of their doctrine that his life was taken on the Cross, that he died and was buried, that on the third day he rose in the body with his wounds intact, and walked about and conversed, and ate with his disciples, and was afterwards taken up bodily to heaven. This is necessary for the theological doctrine of blood sacrifice and vicarious atonement for sins, which is rejected by Islam. But some of the early Christian sects did not believe that Christ was killed on the Cross. The Basilidans believed that some one else was substituted for him. The Docetae held that Christ never had a real physical or natural body, but only an apparent or phantom body, and that his Crucifixion was only apparent, not real. The Marcionite Gospel (about A.D. 138) denied that Jesus was born, and merely said that he appeared in human form. The Gospel of St. Barnabas supported the theory of substitution on the Cross. The Quranic teaching is that Christ was not crucified nor killed by the Jews, notwithstanding certain apparent circumstances which produced that illusion in the minds of some of his enemies: that disputations, doubts, and conjectures on such matters are vain; and that he was taken up to Allah... Translation by M. Asad of verse 4:157: and in their boast, "Behold, we have slain the Christ Jesus, son of Mary, [who claimed to be] an apostle of God!" However, they did not slay him, and neither did they crucify him, but it only seemed to them [as if it had been] so; 171 and, verily, those who hold conflicting views thereon are indeed confused, having no [real] knowledge thereof, and following mere conjecture. For of a certainty, they did not slay him. Commentary number 171 by M. Asad reads: Thus, the Qur'an categorically denies the story of the crucifixion of Jesus. There exist, among Muslims, many fanciful legends telling us that at the last moment God substituted for Jesus a person closely resembling him [according to some accounts that person was Judas], who was subsequently crucified in his place. However, none of these Legends finds the slightest support in the Qur'an or in authentic Traditions, and the stories produced in this connections by the classical commentators must be summarily rejected. They represent no more than confused attempts at "harmonizing" the Quranic statement that Jesus was not crucified with the graphic description, in the Gospels, of his crucifixion. The story of crucifixion as such has been succinctly explained in the Quranic phrase wa-lakin shubbiha lahum, which I render as "but it only appeared to them as if it had been so" - implying that in the course of time, long after the time of Jesus, a legend had somehow grown up [possibly under the then-powerful influence of Mithraistic beliefs] to the effect that he had died on the cross in order to atone for the "original sin" with which mankind is allegedly burdened; and this legend became so firmly established among the latter-day followers of Jesus that even his enemies, the Jews, began to believe it - albeit in a derogatory sense [for crucifixion was, in those times, a heinous form of death penalty reserved for the lowest criminals]. This to my mind, is the only satisfactory explanation of the phrase wa-lakin shubbiha lahum, the more so as the expression shubbiha li, "[a thing] became a fancied image to me", i.e., "in my mind" - in other words, "[it] seemed to me" [see Qamus, art. khayala, as well as Lane II, 833, and IV, 1500]. Can you explain this verse: "So peace is on me the day I was born, the day that I die, and the day that I shall be raised up to life (again)"! I need an depth explanation for this verse. Does this not prove the "Second Coming?" Is there a Second Coming in Islam? If there is no Second Coming where did this notion come from? Aren't there Ahadiths that support this claim? If there is a Second Coming what is its context, especially in contrast to the biblical and Christian (notice the separation of the two ideologies)? Please explain in the most excruciating detail the Second Coming in Islam. Please enlighten me to the truth. I respect both translators but only one or none can be right because they both can't be correct. Can you please shed light on the subject? I personally cannot believe that Jesus was put on the cross since in the Qur'an it says they did not crucify him not did they kill him. You don't have to die on a cross to be crucified. All it takes is a person who is hung on the cross regardless of time or whether the person dies or lives. At least that's my limited knowledge and I think that is exactly what the Qur'an is claiming that he neither was crucified, nor was he killed by crucifixion or any other way. -What do think of the Swoon Theory? I don't buy it, could care to comment please? I have taken up so much of your time, I am sorry. I also apologize for all the typos. Even worse, I apologize for the all over the place questions. I just want to learn the truth. Jazak Allahu Khair , I am indebted to you... Ronnie, USA Answer: Jesus (pbuh) was a messenger (Rasu'l) of God. Every messenger of God is also a Prophet (Nabiy) , but not vice versa. Like every messenger of God, Jesus' (pbuh) mission was to remove all excuse of rejection from his direct addressees and, subsequently, become a sign of the Final Day of Judgment. As for the Muslim concept of Jesus Christ (pbuh) it is different from the Christian concept especially on two counts: Firstly, the Muslim concept considers Jesus (pbuh) as one of the many respected and revered prophets of God, but does not give any of God's prophets any degree of absolute superiority over the other prophets of God. Secondly, the Muslim concept does not consider Jesus (pbuh) as a son of God. These are the two primary differences in the position of Jesus (pbuh) according to the Muslim and the Christian concepts. It cannot be claimed with any degree of certainty that the Jews during the days of Jesus (pbuh) used to call themselves the 'sons' of God or called God their 'Father'. However, we do know that the word 'ben' in the Hebrew language was used in a much wider sense than mere biological progeny. The Strong's Hebrew dictionary explains the word thus: a son (as a builder of the family name), in the widest sense (of literal and figurative relationship, including grandson, subject, nation, quality or condition, etc... Similarly, the word "'ab" in the Hebrew language was also used in a much wider sense, than for merely a biological father. The dictionary explains the word as: a primitive word; father, in a literal and immediate, or figurative and remote application):--chief, (fore-)father(-less), X patrimony, principal. In view of the above, it seems that the word "'ab" has been used in its wider figurative sense and not in its limited literal connotation. The following verse, in my understanding, clearly supports this point: Jesus said to her, "Do not hold on to me, because I have not yet ascended to the Father. But go to my brothers and say to them, 'I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.'" (John 20: 17) As for the cited author's opinion that Jesus (pbuh) was neither crucified nor murdered but was caused to die a natural death, it is quite accurate, according to the clear citations of the Qur'an. You ask: First, are the author's statements accurate? In 5:117, where is Jesus speaking from? Is he speaking in terms of the future of the Last Day? What are the implications of verse 5:117? Is the above an accurate translation? Did Jesus complete his life span on earth? Al-Maaidah 5: 117 is a narration of the dialogue, which shall take place between God and Jesus (pbuh) on the Day of Resurrection. The implication of this verse is that, on the Day of Judgment, when God shall ask Jesus (pbuh) whether he directed his followers to make him and his mother [1] gods and to worship him and his mother, Jesus (pbuh) shall clearly deny and hold himself clear of any such teachings. As stated earlier, the referred verse is a narration of a dialogue that shall take place between God and Jesus (pbuh) in the Hereafter. This verse, therefore, is not relevant to whether or not Jesus (pbuh) has completed his life-span on earth at the present time. You ask: Did Jesus live to an old age? Will he live to an old age when he "returns?" According to only one translation of the Qur'an, the word "kahelan" is translated as old age. "Kahlen" refers to an age between 'young' and 'old'. For example, it may be taken to refer to an age around 45 or 50 years. Therefore, I would prefer to translate it as 'mature' age. You write: The argument was even laid out that this proves the Second Coming of Jesus. The reasoning is that Jesus did not leave the earth at an old age so it can only mean that he's coming back. I find this argument hard to believe. Please shed some light. 33 years old cannot be deemed "old age" even in Jesus' time when life expectancy was much shorter than now, so what is the correct translation? The age of Jesus (pbuh) at his death is not given in the Qur'an. It is derived from the various historical sources, which, themselves, are in need of substantiation. It is obvious that such sources cannot be made a basis of a 'belief' of Islam, which, otherwise, is clearly not supported by the Qur'an. You ask: Can you explain the meaning of Jesus being raised? Allah raised Jesus to Himself, was does that mean? On what basis do those who believe that Jesus was raised alive, in whole body, up to Heaven, stand on? What are the origins of those beliefs? How do we know what "Ra'faa" means? Was it a physical "raising"? Was it exaltation? Was he dead, if he were raised whole body? Was he alive? If he were raised in whole body, dead or alive, where would his body be? The Arabic word "رفع" (to raise) can indeed mean exaltation (in honor, respect, reverence, fame etc.). However, had Aal Imraan 3: 55 only used the words "إني متوفيك ورافعك" (lit: 'I shall cause you to die and raise you') then the phrase 'raise you' could indeed have been interpreted as having been used in a figurative sense, implying 'exaltation'. But, as we know, the verse actually says: "إني متوفيك ورافعك إلي" (lit: 'I shall cause you to die and raise you up to Myself'), because of the addition of "إلي" (i.e., up to Myself), the word "رفع" can no longer be taken to imply exaltation in fame, respect or honor. The sentence clearly implies the physical exaltation or raising of Jesus (pbuh). Those, who believe that Jesus (pbuh) was raised while he was still alive do so primarily because of the narratives ascribed to the Prophet (pbuh), which say that Jesus (pbuh) will return to earth before the Day of Judgment. There is absolutely no basis of this belief in the Qur'an. As far as our source of knowledge of "Rafa`a" is concerned, it is a common Arabic word in the meaning of which there is hardly any difference of opinion. The difference of opinion in the issue under consideration is not one which emanates from a difference of opinion regarding the meaning of "رفع" , but is one which is because of either a difference of opinion regarding the condition in which Jesus (pbuh) was raised up to God [2] or a difference in the implication (not the literal meaning) of the word "رفع" as used in this verse [3] . According to my understanding, because the words "ورافعك إلي" (lit: 'and I shall raise you up to Myself') are preceded by "إني متوفيك" (lit: 'I shall cause you to die'), therefore, it is clear that before physically raising Jesus (pbuh) up to Himself, God caused him to die. As for the physical whereabouts of Jesus' (pbuh) physical body is concerned, we can only say that it was raised up to God. No further information is given in the Qur'an. You write: Does not Sura 2:253 support the idea that Jesus was raised physically? It seems to separate the prophets major experiences, one spoke to God, others were raised in honor (exalted) and that Jesus was given clear signs and strengthened with Holy Spirit. It's obvious that all the prophets, messengers and apostles are honored/exalted, some to higher degrees than others (possibly) but the referred verse seems to make a distinction between them. If it were meant that Jesus was "raised" as in exalted then wouldn't he just been included in that sentence? The foregoing verse is not related to the issue under consideration. You have cited the author as having written: ... Furthermore in 19:31 he says: "And He hath made me blessed wheresoever I be and hath enjoined on me Prayer (Salat) and Charity (Zakat)as long as I live." (19:31) In above verse the words "..as long as I live.." bear some importance. Jesus is to establish Salat and give Zakat AS LONG AS HE LIVES. Now if we accept that Jesus is taken up into heaven alive, then how is he performing these activities up there? He mentions that Allah has enjoined Salat and Zakat on him AS LONG AS HE LIVES . Now some one can say that in heaven he may be performing Salat. But what about Zakat? Are there any Orphans and Unfortunate persons in heaven as well to whom Jesus is paying Zakat? Does God have any poor people in heaven too? Giving Zakat in heaven would say that in heaven there are poor people! Does this make any sense?! I do not agree with the author's argument, though I do agree with the point which the author wants to establish.. You write: Commentary Number 172 by M. Asad to the above verse reads: Cf. 3:55, where God says to Jesus, "Verily, I shall cause thee to die, and shall exalt thee to Me." The verb rafa'ahu (lit., "he raised him" or "elevated him") has always, whenever the act of raf' ("elevating") of human being is attributed to God, the meaning of "honouring" or "exalting". Nowhere in the Qur'an is there any warrant for the popular belief that God has "taken up" Jesus bodily, in his lifetime, into heaven. The expression "God exalted him unto Himself" in the above verse denotes the elevation of Jesus to the realm of God's special grace - a blessing in which all prophets partake, as it is evident from 19:57, where the verb rafa'nahu ("We exalted him") is used with regard to the Prophet Idris, (See also Muhammad Abduh in Manar III, 316 f., and VI, 20f.) The "nay" (bal) at the beginning of the sentence is meant to stress the contrast between belief of the Jesus that they had put Jesus to a shameful death on the cross and the fact of God's having "exalted him unto Himself." It is true that the Qur'an has generally used the word "رفع" for exaltation of degrees (in honor). However, at none of these instances has this verb been used with "إلى الله" (up to God). As I have stated earlier, it is, in fact, the addition of this later phrase, which has changed the implication of the verb from "exaltation in honor" to "raising of the body'. You write: Translation by Yusuf Ali: And (Jesus) shall be a Sign (for the coming of) the Hour (of Judgment): therefore have no doubt about the (Hour) but follow ye Me: this is a Straight Way. Commentary number 4662 by Yusuf Ali to the above verse reads: This is understood to refer to the second coming of Jesus in the Last Days before the Resurrection, when he will destroy the false doctrines that pass under his name, and prepare the way for the universal acceptance of Islam, the Gospel of Unity and Peace, the Straight Way of the Qur'an. For my opinion on Al-Zukhruf 43: 61 (the referred verse), please refer to one of Mr. Amar Ellahi Lone's earlier responses to a related question, titled: " The Qur'an on the Second Advent of Jesus (pbuh) ". You write: He [i.e., Muhammad Asad] continues... "That they said (in boast) We killed Christ Jesus the son of Mary the Apostle of God..." (4:157) But Allah confirmed in the Qur'an that Jesus did not live a cursed life nor died a cursed death but on the contrary he enjoys an exalted and honourable status from Allah. This is what is said in 3:55, that: "..O Jesus! Verily I shall cause thee to die,and shall EXALT thee unto me.." The word in above Ayah is which means elevate you or exalt you. The word literally means 'to raise or elevate', but in the Qur'an it has been used in many verses to convey the meaning of 'Raising one's ranks or status in the sight of Allah', and not physical raising up. Some verses are produced here to show that the meaning of is to raise in ranks and exalt someone. The author continues to use other verses to prove the meaning of "raise." These are the verse numbers 94:4, 19:56, 7:176 and others. Is he correct? I do not agree with the meaning of "رافعك إلي" as explained by Muhammad Asad. I have already explained the reasons for my disagreement in my foregoing paragraphs. You write: He [i.e., Muhammad Asad] then makes this statement: Now if we were to accept the understanding that Jesus was physically raised 'to Allah' then this would mean that Allah is sitting someplace in heaven and one needs to travel up to him. Such an idea about God is un Quranic and is an invention of Jewish and Christian theology, where they have a concept of 'Holy father in heaven'. But the Qur'an on the other hands informs us clearly that Allah (God) is not sitting someplace high up in heaven but: "..He is with you wherever you are.." (57:4) "..Nowhere is there a secret counsel between three persons but He is the fourth of them, nor (between) five but He is the sixth of them, nor less than that nor more BUT HE IS WITH THEM WHERESOEVER THEY ARE.." (58:7) "..We are nearer to him than (his) jugular vein." (50:16) "And We are nearer to it( the human soul) than you, BUT YOU DO NOT SEE." (56:85) The above verses clearly negate the concept of a 'Father (or God situated) in Heaven' or God confined to a space, so that to reach him you need to travel up into heaven.This concept that God is confined in heaven is a Jewish and Christian idea, clearly mentioned at many places in the Bible. But the Qu'ran does not uphold this view and on the contrary clearly negates it. God is not restricted to time and space but His presence is everywhere, all the time but we cannot see or comprehend it.So again the idea of God stationed someplace in heaven and Jesus ascending unto Him is not verified by the Qur'an. "Nay God raised him to Himself, and God is Exalted in Power Wise." (4:158) In above Allah nullifies the claim of opponents of Jesus that he was cursed being crucified on the cross, but confirms that his status is honoured and exalted.This is what is meant by and what was previously confirmed by Allah in 3:55: What if anything can you say about his understanding and his point being made? For my understanding of the foregoing points, please refer to one of my earlier writings titled: " Where is Allah? ". You write: It is obvious that the Qur'an does not say that Jesus was substituted on the cross. However, there is one popular translation that claims that that's exactly what happened: ...They said, "We killed the Messiah Jesus, son of Mary, the messenger of God." They did not kill him, nor did they crucify him, but the likeness of him was put on another man (and they killed that man)... (Qur'an, 4:157) THE NOBLE QUR'AN Translated by Dr. Muhammad Taqi-ud-Din Al-Hilali and Dr. Muhammad Muhsin Khan. Published by DARUSSALAM, Publishers and Distributors, P. O. Box 22743, Riyadh, 11416, Kingdom of Saudi Arabia. The translators didn't even have enough scruples to put parentheses around ...but the likeness of him was put on another man... This cannot possibly be a correct rendering no matter what Ahadiths say. I wish all who read this write to the publishers and harshly condemn this horrible and erroneous insertion. It's reminiscent of what the Bible writers have done. Am I wrong in my understanding? Am I being too hard on this particular translation? I share your opinion and concern. You write: Does Sura 61:6 support the idea that Jesus died before Muhammad arrival? Can you explain this part of it? Although, one may derive the idea of Jesus' (pbuh) death before the advent of Muhammad (pbuh) from the referred verse, yet I would not like to derive any concepts from the Qur'an from a place where the Qur'an is not directly discussing that particular concept. The particular issue being discussed in Al-Saff 61: 6 is not whether Jesus (pbuh) would die before the advent of Muhammad or not. In view of the foregoing, I would like to restrict myself to Aal Imraan 3: 55 when discussing the issue of Jesus' (pbuh) death, as that verse is directly related to the referred issue. You ask: Was Jesus nailed to the cross but didn't die on it? I can't believe that this could be true but here again are the contentions of two translators: Al-Nisaa 4: 157 has categorically and unequivocally stated that Jesus (pbuh) was neither killed nor crucified by the Jews. In view of this statement, it is clear that the Qur'an has not only denied Jesus' killing at the hands of the Jews but has also refuted that Jesus (pbuh) was put on the cross by them. You write: Can you explain this verse: "So peace is on me the day I was born, the day that I die, and the day that I shall be raised up to life (again)"! I need an depth explanation for this verse. Does this not prove the "Second Coming?" Is there a Second Coming in Islam? If there is no Second Coming where did this notion come from? Aren't there Ahadiths that support this claim? If there is a Second Coming what is its context, especially in contrast to the biblical and Christian (notice the separation of the two ideologies)? Please explain in the most excruciating detail the Second Coming in Islam. The last part of the cited verse refers to the raising of the dead in the hereafter. The concept of the second coming of Jesus (pbuh) is based solely on narratives ascribed to the Prophet (pbuh). In view of this fact, the concept of the second coming of the Christ (pbuh) cannot be termed as one of the essential beliefs of Islam. The details, if any, regarding the second coming are quite vague and any explanation would only be based on conjecture. I do not see any reason to go into such details. You ask: What do think of the Swoon Theory? I don't buy it, could care to comment please? My preceding remarks should adequately clarify that I do not ascribe to the idea of the 'swoon theory' [4] . The Qur'an has clearly denied that Jesus (pbuh) was ever put on the cross. I hope this helps. Regards, Moiz Amjad May 11, 2002 [1] It should be noted that the Nazarene creed ascribed to the concept of the Divinity of Mary as well. [2] i.e., whether Jesus (pbuh) was raised up to God while he was alive or after his death. [3] i.e., whether the word 'raise' imply physical raising or exaltation. [4] The 'Swoon Theory' holds that Jesus didn't really die on the Cross. He just passed out or went into a coma from loss of blood, stress, etc. Later on He came to and made the appearances.