STUDYING ISLAM

Slavery

Earlier archive · · October 7, 2026

Question

Slavery in Islam Why does Islam advocate Kanizes (Slave girls). Is it not prostitution? Reply Islam does not advocate Kanizes (Slave girls). Islam has always been against the very existence of the institution of slavery. But, like most of the other social phenomenon, slavery too, because of its deep roots in the society, could not have been abolished by a single stroke of the ruler's pen. It needed not only the provision of settlement opportunities for these slaves but also altering the social attitudes towards them. Islam, from the very beginning aimed at altering the social attitudes of the people towards slaves and slave girls. But we see that the roots of this institution were so deep that even after twenty three years of education, it was still not possible to completely abolish the institution. The maximum that could have been done was to give the slaves the choice of freedom, and that is exactly what Islam did. During this process, it was necessary not only to better the social status of the slaves in the society but also to recognize the relationship between the slaves and their masters. It is in this context, that Islam has allowed sexual relationship between a master and his slave girls. It must be clearly understood that Islam has not promoted a new relationship but has accepted and recognized an existing one. In other words, Islam did not, for the first time allow sexual relations with slave girls but only recognized an already existing relationship between a slave girl and her master to be legal. Now, coming to the second part of your question, you have asked whether such a relationship between a slave girl and his master could be termed as 'Prostitution' or not. I believe that this question can only be asked if a person either does not know what prostitution is or is unaware of the relationship that existed between a master and his slave girl. Prostitution has been defined by the Encyclopedia Britannica in the following words: "the practice of engaging in relatively indiscriminate sexual activity, in general with individuals other than a spouse or friend, in exchange for immediate payment in money or other valuables." The Oxford Advanced Learner's Encyclopedic Dictionary has defined a 'Prostitute' as: "a person who offers herself/himself for sexual intercourse for money." Keeping these difinitions in mind, nobody can term the allowance of the Qur'an regarding the relationship between a master and his slave girls as 'Prostitution'. The Qur'an has condemned those people who used to enforce prostitution upon their slave girls. We, therefore, cannot say that the Qur'an has encouraged or opened the doors for prostitution. But, on the other hand, one may ask that has not the Qur'an opened the door for extra marital sexual relationships (fornication/adultery) by allowing sexual relations between a master and his slave girl. I believe that this question again would show a person's lack of true understanding about the concept of the allowed and the disallowed sexual relationships in the eyes of Islam. In my opinion, the only permenant relationship that Islam has allowed is the one which is preceded by Nikah. The relationship between a master and his slave girl was allowed in the specific conditions of the Arab society at the time of the advent of Islam. As soon as the prevalent conditions of the society changed and the institution of slavery was completely abolished, the provision of this relationship also became redundant. But till such time as this institution existed, the relationship which it entailed was not considered as fornication or adultery by the society. A person could have sexual relations with his slave girl, as long as she remained his slave girl. This was not a hidden relationship. It was fully recognized and supported by the society. Because of this recognition and support, it was not and cannot be considered as fornication or adultery. This relationship was given a status which, in its roots, was not very different from the relationship between a husband and a wife. For example, both these relationships were legally and, to a great extent, morally recognized by the society; and both were declared relationships. In case any aspect remains unclear, please do not hesitate in writing back to me. I hope this helps. Regards The Learner

Answer

Slavery in Islam Why does Islam advocate Kanizes (Slave girls). Is it not prostitution? Reply Islam does not advocate Kanizes (Slave girls). Islam has always been against the very existence of the institution of slavery. But, like most of the other social phenomenon, slavery too, because of its deep roots in the society, could not have been abolished by a single stroke of the ruler's pen. It needed not only the provision of settlement opportunities for these slaves but also altering the social attitudes towards them. Islam, from the very beginning aimed at altering the social attitudes of the people towards slaves and slave girls. But we see that the roots of this institution were so deep that even after twenty three years of education, it was still not possible to completely abolish the institution. The maximum that could have been done was to give the slaves the choice of freedom, and that is exactly what Islam did. During this process, it was necessary not only to better the social status of the slaves in the society but also to recognize the relationship between the slaves and their masters. It is in this context, that Islam has allowed sexual relationship between a master and his slave girls. It must be clearly understood that Islam has not promoted a new relationship but has accepted and recognized an existing one. In other words, Islam did not, for the first time allow sexual relations with slave girls but only recognized an already existing relationship between a slave girl and her master to be legal. Now, coming to the second part of your question, you have asked whether such a relationship between a slave girl and his master could be termed as 'Prostitution' or not. I believe that this question can only be asked if a person either does not know what prostitution is or is unaware of the relationship that existed between a master and his slave girl. Prostitution has been defined by the Encyclopedia Britannica in the following words: "the practice of engaging in relatively indiscriminate sexual activity, in general with individuals other than a spouse or friend, in exchange for immediate payment in money or other valuables." The Oxford Advanced Learner's Encyclopedic Dictionary has defined a 'Prostitute' as: "a person who offers herself/himself for sexual intercourse for money." Keeping these difinitions in mind, nobody can term the allowance of the Qur'an regarding the relationship between a master and his slave girls as 'Prostitution'. The Qur'an has condemned those people who used to enforce prostitution upon their slave girls. We, therefore, cannot say that the Qur'an has encouraged or opened the doors for prostitution. But, on the other hand, one may ask that has not the Qur'an opened the door for extra marital sexual relationships (fornication/adultery) by allowing sexual relations between a master and his slave girl. I believe that this question again would show a person's lack of true understanding about the concept of the allowed and the disallowed sexual relationships in the eyes of Islam. In my opinion, the only permenant relationship that Islam has allowed is the one which is preceded by Nikah. The relationship between a master and his slave girl was allowed in the specific conditions of the Arab society at the time of the advent of Islam. As soon as the prevalent conditions of the society changed and the institution of slavery was completely abolished, the provision of this relationship also became redundant. But till such time as this institution existed, the relationship which it entailed was not considered as fornication or adultery by the society. A person could have sexual relations with his slave girl, as long as she remained his slave girl. This was not a hidden relationship. It was fully recognized and supported by the society. Because of this recognition and support, it was not and cannot be considered as fornication or adultery. This relationship was given a status which, in its roots, was not very different from the relationship between a husband and a wife. For example, both these relationships were legally and, to a great extent, morally recognized by the society; and both were declared relationships. In case any aspect remains unclear, please do not hesitate in writing back to me. I hope this helps. Regards The Learner

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