STUDYING ISLAM

Slavery Under the Prevalent Circumstances...

Earlier archive · · October 7, 2026

Question

Slavery Under the Prevalent Circumstances... Suppose a war breaks out and many people are taken prisoners. So can they be kept as slaves? And can the master have intercourse with the slave girl? Do they have the right to refuse in this case? And why did the masters have intercourse with them at the time of the Prophet even though they were not wed? Please clarify this matter thoroughly as I am very confused and wish to remove all my doubts. Iqbal, UAE Reply As I have clarified in a few of my earlier responses to related questions [1] that during the time of the Prophet (pbuh), the institution of slavery was not a matter of choice, but one of compulsion. It was impossible for Islam to completely abolish this institution immediately, without serious as well as large-scale human, social and socio-moral repercussions, given the particular socio-psychology of the Arabs, in particular, and the world, in general. It was primarily due to these repercussions that rather than passing any legislations for the immediate abolition of the institution, Islam sought to improve the psychic of the individuals as well as the collectivity and, thus, paved the way for the permanent, smooth and systematic abolition of the institution over time. We can easily derive from the above explanation that even though Islam accepted the existence of slavery in the society, yet this acceptance was not as an approval of the existence of this institution, but as a social vice, which could not be avoided under the prevalent domestic as well as international social conditions. The mere fact that Islam took a series of steps for the initiation of a social reform, which ultimately resulted in the complete abolition of the institution of slavery, is evidence of the fact that, given a choice, Islam would never have approved the existence of the institution, in the first place. Keeping the above explanation in perspective, it should be easy to derive that Islam would never approve any steps that may, in any way, contribute toward the reestablishment of the institution. Thus, as I understand it, once the institution of slavery has been completely abolished, Islam would not allow its reestablishment. You have asked: Suppose a war breaks out and many people are taken prisoners. So can they be kept as slaves? As should be clear from the foregoing explanation, my answer to this question is 'No'. Another aspect, which clearly goes against making slaves of prisoners are the prevalent international laws and treaties, which are agreed upon by all Muslim as well as non-Muslims nations of the contemporary world. These laws and treaties have considerably changed the status of the prisoners of wars as well as any territory that is conquered during such aggression. No Muslim country remaining faithful to its international contracts and agreements can make slaves of its prisoners of wars [2] , just as other nations cannot make slaves of the citizens of an Islamic state. You ask: ... why did the masters have intercourse with them at the time of the Prophet even though they were not wed? For my answer to this question, please refer to one of my earlier responses to a similar question, titled "Slave Girls as Wives" [3] . I hope this helps. Regards, Moiz Amjad , Otherwise you may simply Close this Window [1] All these responses may be seen in the section related to slavery, on the page related to social issues ( http://www.understanding-islam.com/rs/social.htm ). [2] It is worth mentioning here that abiding by all agreements and contracts is the responsibility of all Muslims, as imposed by the Qur'an. [3] The referred question may be accessed at: http://www.understanding-islam.com/rs/s-025.htm .

Answer

Slavery Under the Prevalent Circumstances... Suppose a war breaks out and many people are taken prisoners. So can they be kept as slaves? And can the master have intercourse with the slave girl? Do they have the right to refuse in this case? And why did the masters have intercourse with them at the time of the Prophet even though they were not wed? Please clarify this matter thoroughly as I am very confused and wish to remove all my doubts. Iqbal, UAE Reply As I have clarified in a few of my earlier responses to related questions [1] that during the time of the Prophet (pbuh), the institution of slavery was not a matter of choice, but one of compulsion. It was impossible for Islam to completely abolish this institution immediately, without serious as well as large-scale human, social and socio-moral repercussions, given the particular socio-psychology of the Arabs, in particular, and the world, in general. It was primarily due to these repercussions that rather than passing any legislations for the immediate abolition of the institution, Islam sought to improve the psychic of the individuals as well as the collectivity and, thus, paved the way for the permanent, smooth and systematic abolition of the institution over time. We can easily derive from the above explanation that even though Islam accepted the existence of slavery in the society, yet this acceptance was not as an approval of the existence of this institution, but as a social vice, which could not be avoided under the prevalent domestic as well as international social conditions. The mere fact that Islam took a series of steps for the initiation of a social reform, which ultimately resulted in the complete abolition of the institution of slavery, is evidence of the fact that, given a choice, Islam would never have approved the existence of the institution, in the first place. Keeping the above explanation in perspective, it should be easy to derive that Islam would never approve any steps that may, in any way, contribute toward the reestablishment of the institution. Thus, as I understand it, once the institution of slavery has been completely abolished, Islam would not allow its reestablishment. You have asked: Suppose a war breaks out and many people are taken prisoners. So can they be kept as slaves? As should be clear from the foregoing explanation, my answer to this question is 'No'. Another aspect, which clearly goes against making slaves of prisoners are the prevalent international laws and treaties, which are agreed upon by all Muslim as well as non-Muslims nations of the contemporary world. These laws and treaties have considerably changed the status of the prisoners of wars as well as any territory that is conquered during such aggression. No Muslim country remaining faithful to its international contracts and agreements can make slaves of its prisoners of wars [2] , just as other nations cannot make slaves of the citizens of an Islamic state. You ask: ... why did the masters have intercourse with them at the time of the Prophet even though they were not wed? For my answer to this question, please refer to one of my earlier responses to a similar question, titled "Slave Girls as Wives" [3] . I hope this helps. Regards, Moiz Amjad , Otherwise you may simply Close this Window [1] All these responses may be seen in the section related to slavery, on the page related to social issues ( http://www.understanding-islam.com/rs/social.htm ). [2] It is worth mentioning here that abiding by all agreements and contracts is the responsibility of all Muslims, as imposed by the Qur'an. [3] The referred question may be accessed at: http://www.understanding-islam.com/rs/s-025.htm .

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