Reply to the Second Response on 'Recognizing Qadianis...' I have met a number of Qadianis during the past few years requiring of me exactly what you have stated: to believe that Mr. Ghulam Ahmad Qadiani was a prophet of God. My reply to them has been no different from the one that I gave you. Just to remind you, my reply was: "If you know of any one or more verses of the Qur'an that clearly direct me and other Muslims to hold this belief (of any prophet or messiah after Mohammad pbuh), please do let me know. I shall then be obliged to consider the comming of the "Promised Messiah". And in case you don't, then you should yourself seriously consider why do you believe in something that the Qur'an does not require you to. Don't you think that the Qur'an suffices for your success in the hereafter?" It is very unfortunate that a question as simple as that has always received the same complicated reply that I have received from you. Please note my words again: " any one or more verses of the Qur'an that clearly direct me and other Muslims to hold this belief ", and then look at the answer that you have given. Where in the words of the referred verse of Surah Jum`ah (or the referred narrative) have I been (clearly) directed to hold the belief that you want me to hold? My dear friend, regarding the referred verse, you have yourself stated: This verse signifies that the Message of the Holy Prophet was meant not only for the Arabs among whom he was raised but for all non-Arabs as well, and not only for his contemporaries but also for the coming generations till the end of time. Or the meaning may be that the Holy Prophet will be raised among another people who have not yet joined his immediate followers. The reference in the verse and in a well-known saying of the Holy Prophet is to the Second Advent of the Holy Prophet in the person of the Promised Messiah in the Latter Days. Although the original (Arabic) words of the referred verse cannot in any case be taken to mean either of the meanings that you have stated, but even then, if we do submit (just for the sake of our discussion) that either of the two meanings can be held as true, it is obvious that the referred verse does not clearly require of me to hold the belief that you want me to hold . How can a verse that may imply one or the other meaning be taken as a clear direction or commandment? The verse of Surah Jum`ah (with its previous verse) should be correctly translated as: "It is He who sent in the unlettered [pagans of Arabia] His messenger from amongst them who recites to them His verses, to purify them, by instructing them in [His] law and in [His] wisdom, though they had previously been in obvious error. And also others among them who have not yet joined them " It is as obvious in the English language, as it is in the Arabic language that the words: " And also others among them who have not yet joined them " can refer only to the Arabs. The words: " among them " are an obvious hinderance in expanding the scope of this verse to anyone besides the Bani Ismai'l - the unlettered Arabs. Such expansion can only be allowed if one ignores the words of the Qur'an, which I am not willing to do - and I am sure neither are you. I don't think you will agree with my interpretation of the referred verse and nor do I require of you to do so, all that I intend is to show you that the referred verse does not answer my question (i.e. Is there any verse that clearly asks me to wait for and believe in any prophet after Mohammad pbuh). I think even you will agree with that. I do not ask much of you, my friend, just give me one verse in the Qur'an that clearly requires of me to wait for a prophet after Mohammad (pbuh). In case you do not know of any such verse in the Qur'an, then I request you, in all humbleness, to review your belief in something that the Qur'an does not require of you. Do you not hold the Qur'an sufficient for your salvation? Regards The Learner