Answers to your questions follow: Your first question is: ... on what basis do you say that slavery is banned? As an answer to your question, I would like you to consider the following points: Slavery was an established and socially accepted institution at the time of the Prophet (pbuh) - the time of the revelation of the Qur'an. In this environment, which accepted slavery as an established institution of the society, the Qur'an as well as the Prophet (pbuh) took a number of steps, aimed toward: Improving the social and socio-moral status of the slaves; Creating and promoting awareness of the socio-moral vice involved in enslaving a person; Promoting the freeing of slaves as one of the most aspired and virtuous deeds; Closing the doors of making slaves of prisoners of wars; Giving the slaves the legal right to buy their freedom from their masters in the shape of a contract between the slave and the master; and Prescribing 'freeing of slaves' as one of the permanent heads of the funds generated through the collection of Zaka'h . After a long struggle (throughout the world) against the institution of slavery, the world has finally been relieved of the great socio-moral vice of this institution [2] . It is quite clear that even during the times when the whole world was drowned in the moral vice involved in the acceptance of the institution of slavery, Islam took all the possible steps to discourage its promotion and promote its abolition. Keeping this obvious corollary in perspective, I really do not see any option but to submit that after the world has been completely relieved of the great vice of slavery, Islam would be strictly against its reinstatement in the world. All efforts of reinstatement of this institution would obviously be in clear contradiction of all the steps taken by Islam for the social and socio-moral reformation of the society, especially with respect to the institution of slavery. You write: If it is a result of treaties based on secular/man-made laws from Muslim lands where Allah (swt) is NOT sovereign - meaning where man becomes the standard for what is lawful and unlawful such as in a democracy or any other system where mankind is given the power to make laws. I suppose you imply that if the Shari`ah has not clearly prohibited enslaving others, then no international treaties - especially with secular nations - should hinder us in making slaves of our enemies. I completely disagree with you. Firstly, as I have explained earlier, the whole spirit of the directives of the Shari`ah entail a clear spirit of reforming the society and ultimately reaching a stage where the complete abolition of the institution of slavery becomes possible. Thus, after the abolition of the institution of slavery from the world, it would be clearly against the directives of the Shari`ah to make any efforts of reinstating the institution. Secondly, the Qur'an clearly wants a Muslim state to enter and abide by any international agreements - even agreements with not only secular, but also polytheistic and clearly rejecting nations - which are based on moral principles and are not against any clear directives of the Shari`ah . The Qur'an says: Let not your hatred for a nation - because it stopped you from the Masjid-e-Haraam - incite you to transgress against them. Cooperate with them in matters of obedience and piety but do not cooperate with them in matters of sin and transgression. ( Al-Maaidah 5: 2) Furthermore, the Qur'an has clearly mentioned abiding by our contracted agreements as a religious obligation. The Qur'an says: They [i.e. the obedient] are most abiding in their agreements, when they enter into it. ( Al-Baqarah 2: 177) At another instance, the Qur'an says: Abide by your agreements; Indeed, every agreement shall be enquired into [on the Day of Judgment]. ( Al-Israa 17: 34) At another instance, it says: And [the true believers are] those, who dearly guard their trusts and their agreements. ( Al-Mu'minoon 23: 8, Al-Ma`aarij 70: 32) The Qur'an also directs us to abide by these contracts under all circumstances. Two such instances are specifically mentioned in the Qur'an. At one instance, the Qur'an says that if a person - even if he has committed a crime, which subjects him to be killed by the Muslim state - takes refuge with a nation with whom the Muslim state has entered a no-war pact, then no action should be taken against the absconder. The no-war pact should still be abided by the Muslim state [3] . At another instance, the Qur'an says that it is an obligation on a Muslim state to help other Muslims, if they are subjected to religious persecution by another (non-Muslim) state; However, if the Muslim state has entered a no-war pact with that non-Muslim state, then even such a help cannot be extended to the oppressed Muslims [4] . Keeping these two points in perspective, I consider abiding by the said international agreement regarding the prisoners of wars as religiously binding upon all Muslim states of the world. My dear brother, we must also keep in mind that the present international agreements against slavery do not only stop us from making slaves of other nations, they also secure us - and our own mothers, sisters and daughters - from becoming slaves and concubines of other nations. Would it really be advisable to disregard such morally and socially sound agreements? You write: I can say for example by international agreement it is allowable to sell alcohol throughout the world. As Muslims, do we silently accept it? No Muslim state is under any obligation, through any international agreement to allow the imports of alcoholic drinks. Why should the Muslims object to any agreement, which does not force them into disobedience toward the Almighty? You write: Again with the question if there was a war, and Muslims got prisoners of war, where some were women. Is it allowed under Islamic principles first of all to have them as slaves as the Qur'an allows it... No. Muslims are bound by the Shari`ah to abide by their agreements with other states. Furthermore, it should remain clear that the Qur'an does not 'allow' making slaves; on the contrary, it has only 'accepted' the institution of slavery, till the time that it is completely abolished. In fact, the Qur'an has clearly discouraged making slaves of prisoners of wars and has directed the Muslims to either set them free, as a show of graciousness or by taking money in return of their freedom ( Muhammad 47: 4). You further ask: ... and then to engage in sexual relations without marriage, as the Qur'an allows it? Establishing sexual relations with a slave girl was a part of the slave-societies. With the abolition of the slave-societies, the provision of sexual relations with slave girls has clearly become redundant. You write: I understand that slavery is discouraged in Islam. BUT is it haram like alcohol? Till the time that slavery existed in the world, the Qur'an accepted its existence, while paving the path of its abolition. Now that the said institution is completely abolished, the Qur'an would obviously want it to remain abolished. Does this not mean that the reinstatement of the institution should be considered as prohibited ? You ask: I guess my ultimate question is that is slavery mubah and if it is then is having sexual relations with what "the right hand possesses" without marriage mubah ? I believe that these questions have been adequately answered in the preceding paragraphs. You write: We cannot simply rationalize our way out of this problem because we know that the human intellect in Islam is not the source of legislation but only the divine texts, which are the Qur'an and Hadeeth . I really do not understand what you imply by 'rationalization'. My opinion regarding the said topic is derived from the Qur'an. Though I do not claim to be absolutely correct in deriving the stated opinion, however, as long as my derivation is not challenged on the basis of the Qur'an, I would remain satisfied ascribing to it. I would, therefore, suggest that you take a close look at all the bases of my derivation and let me know the mistakes, which, in your opinion, I have committed in making the said derivations. I hope this helps. January 31, 2001 [1] This is probably a reference to 'Understanding Islam' ( http://www.understanding-islam.com ). [2] For details and references regarding these points, please refer to my previous responses on the subject. [3] Refer to Al-Nisaa 4: 89 - 90. [4] Refer to Al-Anfaal 8: 72. Answer published by Moiz Amjad Discussion(s) regarding this Question Further Clarification On 'Slavery, International Treaties & the Shari`ah' More regarding Slavery A Small Note on the Issue of Slavery Slavery in Islam