What exactly do you imply by "Clear Indication"? I ask this question for the reason that in my opinion, the difference between Qadianis and Muslims, even though it is quite clear, is not very apparent. The basic difference between Muslims and Qadianis is that of a belief. Belief, as you know is not always observable. Therefore, in a way we can say that the difference between the two groups, with all its significance and its importance, is not always apparent because of the very fact that this difference lies basically in the concept of the finality of the prophethood of Mohammed (pbuh). Thus the clear indication that a person is a Qadiani is that he holds Mirza Ghulam Ahmad Qadiani to be a prophet of God. A Muslim, on the other hand, believes Mohammed (pbuh) to be the last prophet of God. Please do let me know if my answer does not adequate clarify the issue. 1 st April 1998 [1] Quite sometime after I posted these responses on the web site, I received protests from a number of Ahmadis for having used the word 'Qadiani' for them. I was not aware of the fact that the term 'Qadiani' was, generally, considered to be derogatory by the Ahmadis . Since then, I try to refrain from using the word 'Qadiani' . However, these responses are of a date prior to my knowledge. My apologies to all those who consider the term 'Qadiani' to be derogatory. Answer published by Moiz Amjad Discussion(s) regarding this Question A Further Clarification of the Basis of Believing in the Prophethood of Mirza Ghulam Ahmad The Basis of Believing in the Prophethood of Mirza Ghulam Ahmad of Qaadiyaan