Title: Is their a contradiction between Al-Maaidah 5: 69 and Aal Imraan 3: 85 Question: Dear brother in Islam, my question is if their is any contradiction between these 2 ayahs: "Surely, those who believe, those who are the Jews and the Sabians and the Christians - whosoever believed in Allaah and the Last Day, and worked righteousness, on them shall be no fear, nor shall they grieve." ( Al-Maaidah 5:69) and "And whoever seeks a religion other than Islam, it will never be accepted of him, and in the Hereafter he will be one of the losers" ( Aal 'Imraan 3:85) as you can see in the first ayah , it uses the present tense (those who are the Jews and the Sabians and the Christians) I have searched through out the internet for answer and I found the following: The great Imaam Ismaa'eel ibn Katheer, may Allaah have mercy on him, said in his tafseer of the aayah from Soorat al-Baqarah : "Allaah, may He be exalted, points out that whoever of the previous nations did well and was obedient, will have a good reward, and this will be the case for everyone who follows the Unlettered Prophet [Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) until the Hour comes - he will have eternal happiness, and they will not fear what they are going to face, nor will they grieve for what they have left behind." If this ayah was for the nations that lived before the Prophet (SAW) why is it then using the present tense. This (to me) also seems to imply that the Christians were only saved before the time of Muhammad. Since Muhammad wasn't born until 600 years after Jesus the two verses (2:62 and 5:69) would not have been valid at the time they were written. Plus, 18 verses before 5:69 is verse 5.51 that reads "O you who believe! do not take the Jews and the Christians for friends; they are friends of each other; and whoever amongst you takes them for a friend, then surely he is one of them; surely Allah does not guide the unjust people.". Clearly, 5:69 ("Surely those who believe and those who are Jews and the Sabians and the Christians whoever believes in Allah and the last day and does good - they shall have no fear nor shall they grieve.") was written after 5.51, Muhammad (pbuh) was already alive 5.69 doesn't appear to be talking about people in the past or it would read "those who were Jews" rather than "those who are Jews". I hope you give me any explanation about it. Nuradin Ismael United Kingdom Answer: For my understanding of Al-Baqarah 2: 62 [1] and of the directives/information derived from these verses, please refer to one of my earlier responses to a related question titled: " Success in the Hereafter for non-Muslims ". As for Aal Imraan 3: 85, the verse has used the word 'Islam' in its literal [2] rather than its legal or juristic connotation [3] . This point is easily determined through a close study of the two verses preceding verse 85. A simple translation of these three verses follows: Do they seek [to adopt] a religion, other than the one given by God, while [the fact is that] everything in the heavens and the earth submits to Him - whether willingly or unwillingly - and [finally] to Him everything shall be returned. Tell them that we believe in God and in whatever has been revealed to us and in whatever was revealed upon Abraham, Ishmael, Isaac, Jacob and his progeny and in whatever was given to Moses, Jesus and the Prophets from their Lord. We do not differentiate between any one of these [prophets]. And indeed to Him do we submit . And [remember that] whoever seeks [to adopt] any other religion, except that of submission [to God], it shall not be accepted from him. And in the hereafter, such people shall be among the losers. ( Aal Imraan 3: 83 - 85) Aal Imraan 3: 83, which is a kind of a preamble for the following verses, has clearly used the word 'Islam' in its literal meaning. It is quite clear that in this context, the word 'Islam' is used in the same meaning in the following two verses as well. If seen in the foregoing explanation, you shall see that the two referred verses not only are not contradictory, but are in fact referring to the same phenomenon in different words. Al-Baqarah 2: 62 (and Al-Maaidah 5: 69) says that success in the hereafter shall not based on one's ascription to any one or the other creed, but shall depend on one's true belief in the One God and in the hereafter and on his doing pious deeds. On the other hand, Aal Imraan 3: 85 declares that the only religion acceptable in the eyes of God is the religion of submission and obedience to God. It is this religion of submission and obedience to God, which was taught by each and every one of the prophets sent by God. I hope this helps. Regards, Moiz Amjad July 13, 2002 [1] According to my understanding, the same explanation applies to Al-Maaidah 5: 69 as well. [2] The literal meaning of the word 'Islam' is submission and obedience, implying submission and obedience to God. [3] In its legal or juristic connotation, the word 'Islam' implies the religion based on the revelation delivered to Muhammad (pbuh).