Iddah Clarification
Question
Title: Iddah Clarification Question: I read something on your website by Moiz Amjad that says that Iddah is not required for women who had no sexual relations with their husbands for some time (even if they menstruate regularly). Does this mean that if due to personal reasons (such as stress, depression, travelling or being in different cities) if husband and wife cannot have sexual intercourse for 4-5 months and after this much time a divorce incident happens then does this mean that husband has no right for reconciliation (looses this god given right) as iddah is not required (per Mr Moiz Amjad)?? Please bear in mind that both parties do want reconciliation. On the same note if couple (upon mutual agreement) uses birth control and then have a divorce incident (where they know that lady cant be pregnant) then again will the man looses the right for reconciliation as may be iddah will not apply as they know that lady is not pregnant since they were using birth control? Thank you for your help. Answer: It is true that the basic reason for the prescription of Iddah is to make it apparent that the divorced (or the widowed) woman is not pregnant. However, because there is an additional element of the potential of reconciliation that is dependent upon the period of Iddah , it would therefore be advisable that, under normal circumstances, the divorced couple should observe all the directives of the Shari`ah given for the period of Iddah , even when they are certain that the woman is not pregnant. I hope the above will answer both your questions. Moiz Amjad June 4, 2005
Answer
Title: Iddah Clarification Question: I read something on your website by Moiz Amjad that says that Iddah is not required for women who had no sexual relations with their husbands for some time (even if they menstruate regularly). Does this mean that if due to personal reasons (such as stress, depression, travelling or being in different cities) if husband and wife cannot have sexual intercourse for 4-5 months and after this much time a divorce incident happens then does this mean that husband has no right for reconciliation (looses this god given right) as iddah is not required (per Mr Moiz Amjad)?? Please bear in mind that both parties do want reconciliation. On the same note if couple (upon mutual agreement) uses birth control and then have a divorce incident (where they know that lady cant be pregnant) then again will the man looses the right for reconciliation as may be iddah will not apply as they know that lady is not pregnant since they were using birth control? Thank you for your help. Answer: It is true that the basic reason for the prescription of Iddah is to make it apparent that the divorced (or the widowed) woman is not pregnant. However, because there is an additional element of the potential of reconciliation that is dependent upon the period of Iddah , it would therefore be advisable that, under normal circumstances, the divorced couple should observe all the directives of the Shari`ah given for the period of Iddah , even when they are certain that the woman is not pregnant. I hope the above will answer both your questions. Moiz Amjad June 4, 2005
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