A Further Clarification on the Question Regarding Hajj The reasoning behind the opinion that one should not perform umra after ramzan if he wants to go for haj is that we, the people of Jeddah, are basically "Ahl-e-haram" i.e. we live within the boundary line of Meeqat and we can not perform "haj-e-tamatta". If we go for umra after 1st Shawal which is the starting of "Ashha-rul-haram", then come back to normal life (remove ahram) and then perform haj on 9th Zilhaj, the haj becomes "haj-e-tamatta", which is wrong as we can only perform "haj-e-ifrad". That is the logic given by ulma. While the 2nd opinion that haj becomes necessary after performing umra in "Ashha-rul-haram", they consider it a baseless opinion spread among people. I requested for a source for this opinion. If they found any I'll send it to u. Wassalam Rehan Ahmed Reply Unfortunately, in your previous question, I missed the point that it was particularly asked with reference to those people who live within the boundaries of the haram . The opinion that if a person, living in the boundaries of the haram , plans to perform hajj during a particular year then he should not perform `umrah at any time after Ramadhan (that is after the beginning of the revered months - Ash'hur al-Huram), is correct. This restriction does not apply to anyone who resides outside the boundaries of the haram . Moreover, if the person does not plan to perform hajj in that particular year, then there is no harm in performing `umrah after Ramadhan (during the revered months), even if he resides within the boundaries of the haram . I hope this helps. In case any aspect of my answer remains unclear, please feel free to write back to me at your convenience. Regards The Learner