A Comment on 'Beating Wives' I found this gentleman's discussion on ayat 4:34 that I thought you might want to comment on it when discussing my question to you concerning a husband's authority. This man is not a learned scholar but a gentleman running a list server on Women and Islam. I found his discussion interesting and thought I would share it and perhaps (time permitting) get your view on his discussion. Please let me know if you find my sending you this material intrusive and if so, I will refrain from doing so in the future. Peace to you and those around you, Perhaps we should first (before looking at your questions) relook at the "translation" (or rather, interpretation) that Yusuf Ali gives us. ** 004.034 Men are the protectors and maintainers of women, because God Let us accept for now that qawwamun means "protectors and maintainers". But, please note, the verse says "men" and "women", not husbands and wives! So where do we get the notion that its talking about the husband-wife relationship. ** has given the one more (strength) than the other, and because they ** "more than the other". The "strength" is Yusuf Ali's addition. ** support them from their means. Therefore the righteous women are ** devoutly obedient, and guard in (the husband's) absence what God The word qanitat ("devoutly obedient") is used everywhere in the Qur'an as meaning obedience to Allah. Suddenly in 4:34 we assume it means obedience to the husband?! Why? The wording of the verse does not say "devoutly obedient to the husband", it just says "devoutly obedient". Now, if every else Allah talks about devoutly obedient referring to obedience to Himself, why here do we assume that His unspecified reference is to the husband? It is, of course, "devoutly obedient to Him". "and guard the ghaib as Allah would have them guard it." Ghaib, as we know, refers to the unseen, the hidden. Why here would it mean "in the husband's absence"? (Note that in Yusuf Ali "the husband's" is in brackets, meaning it's his own interpretation.) So what does "ghaib" here mean. I wuld suggest Allah is referring to the hidden physiologically, the wombs of women (and their chastity). ** would have them guard. As to those women on whose part ye fear disloyalty and ill-conduct, admonish them (first), (Next), refuse to "nushuz" - rebellion. Not disloyalty to the husband. (Note how nushuz is translated in 4:128: YUSUFALI: If a wife fears *cruelty or desertion* on her husband's part, there is no blame on them if they arrange an amicable settlement between themselves; and such settlement is best; even though men's souls are swayed by greed. But if ye do good and practise self-restraint, Allah is well-acquainted with all that ye do. PICKTHAL: If a woman feareth *ill treatment* from her husband, or desertion, it is no sin for them twain if they make terms of peace between themselves. Peace is better. But greed hath been made present in the minds (of men). If ye do good and keep from evil, lo! Allah is ever Informed of what ye do. SHAKIR: And if a woman fears *ill usage* or desertion on the part of her husband, there is no blame on them, if they effect a reconciliation between them, and reconciliation is better, and avarice has been made to be present in the (people's) minds; and if you do good (to others) and guard (against evil), then surely Allah is aware of what you do. ) So what is this rebellion? Remember, as I said above, that the verse refers to "men" and "women", not a husband and a wife. So, the sense is that this verse is talking about society, not a family. At the beginning of the verse Allah tells us what is, I would argue, the "unique and specific" responsibility that men have in society - material provision. Now, talking about women, Allah refers to women's rebellion against what is their "uniqe and specific" responsibility - chilbearing. If women in society rebel (en masse) against this responsibility then certain action needs to be taken. ** share their beds, (And last) beat them (lightly); but if they return Thus, the action... At a societal level that this group of women be admonished, then (again at a societal level), they are isolated particularly in terms of sexual relations. And, if that doesn't work, strike out against them (at a societal level). ** to obedience, seek not against them Means (of annoyance): For God is Most High, great (above you all) Reply I am extremely sorry for the undue delay in my response, but it was primarily because of the great number of questions that I received and because of the fact that I do not have any assistance in my work on the web. Let us begin by taking a look at two of the important words of the related verse. The first word is " qawwa'm `ala' ". The Arabic-English dictionary, " Al-Mawrid " describes it as: "caretaker, custodian, guardian, curator, keeper, supervisor, superintendent". The second word is " Nushooz ". It has been described by " Al-Mawrid " as: "recalcitrance, disobedience, violation of marital duties (on the part of the wife)". In my opinion, because the word " Nushooz " has been used in the Qur'an, with reference to both the man and the woman, therefore the qualification "on the part of the wife" is not called for. Nushooz , actually means "recalcitrance". When it is used with reference to a relationship or a position or an interaction, it implies refusal to accept the position of the other relation, or another position or another party to the interaction. In my opinion, the related verse translates as follows: "Men are responsible for their women because Allah has made the one superior to the other in different spheres and because they spend of their wealth. Therefore, righteous women are obedient and guard secrets as Allah has also guarded secrets. As for those from whom you fear refusal to accept the position [of the man], admonish them and [if this does not effect their behavior then] leave them alone on their beds and [if even this does not effect their behavior then] beat them." (Al-Nisa' 4: 34) Here I would like to give my reasons for taking the "men" and the "women" referred in this verse to mean "men [as husbands]" and "their women" (i.e. wives) respectively. I do accept, obviously that the words "men" and "women" could refer to men and women, in general. But there are numerous examples in the Qur'an in which the word "Al-Nisa'" is used for wives. Normally in such places, it implies "your women" or "their women" etc. as is used in the Qur'an in a number of other places, which, in the Arabic language, is known to refer to "wives", unless the context clearly suggests otherwise. A few examples of "your women" or "their women" etc, implying "your wives" or "their wives" respectively, as has been used in the Qur'an, can be seen in the following verses: 2: 187, 2: 223, 2: 226, 3: 61, 4: 23, 33: 30, 33: 32, 33: 59, 58: 2-3, 65: 4. While a few examples where the word "Al-Nisa'" (literally: the women) is used to imply "your women" or "their women" and thus "your wives" or "their wives" etc. as used in the Qur'an can be seen in the following verses: 2: 222, 2: 231-232, 2: 236, 4: 4, 4: 43, 4: 129, 5: 6, 65: 1 But this discussion only proves that the words of the verse under consideration, may refer to "men and their women (i.e. their wives)". It does not give us a clear hint whether or not the case is really so. In my opinion, if a particular word can be used to imply more than one meaning, the correct method of determining its implication in a particular sentence is to examine the word in the context of that sentence and that sentence in the context of the paragraph and so on. If we examine the word "Al-Nisa'" in the particular context under consideration, we see: The verse gives reasons for making a man the "Qawwa'm". One of these reasons has been given in the words: "because they spend of their wealth". This obviously means that men have been given the responsibility of earning and spending wealth on women. I believe that such a responsiblity lies on the man only with reference to "his woman" i.e. "his wife", not the womankind as a whole. In case of a woman's "Nushooz" one of the directives given to the "Men" is to "leave them alone on their beds". The words of the Qur'an: "Leave them alone on their beds" is clearly a directive to the husbands of such women (not to the society, in general). The succeeding verse says: "If you fear a breach between the two, appoint an arbiter from his people and another from her's ". This verse again is a clear evidence that the "men and the "women" referred to in the preceding verse are not just "men" and "women" living in a perticular society, they are actually "men" and "their women" tied in the relationship of marriage. I really do not know why, in the presence of the stated evidence, we should try to prove that the "men" and the "women" referred to in the verse are men and women, in general. As far as the implication of the word "Qa'nita't" is concerned, the referred excerpt says: "The word qanitat ("devoutly obedient") is used everywhere in the Qur'an as meaning obedience to Allah. Suddenly in 4:34 we assume it means obedience to the husband?! Why? The wording of the verse does not say "devoutly obedient to the husband", it just says "devoutly obedient". Now, if every else Allah talks about devoutly obedient referring to obedience to Himself, why here do we assume that His unspecified reference is to the husband? It is, of course, "devoutly obedient to Him"." I do agree that the Qur'an has generally used this word with reference to the Almighty. But this does not mean that the word should not or cannot be used with reference to anyone else. Especially, as "Aqrab Al-Mawa'rid" (`arabic dictionary) has quoted that when the `arabs say: " Imra'atun Qunoot " (i.e. an obedient woman) the obedience in question is with reference to the husband. Qur'an is in the clear `arabic dialect. It is in the style used by the people of the "umm al-qura" (Mekkah). Then why should we assume that the words used by the Qur'an in this particular case are unidiomatic. Moreover, the context of the word "qanita't" clearly tells us that in this verse it has been used with reference to the husband. Have a look at the particular part of the verse again: "Men are responsible for their women because Allah has made the one superior to the other in different spheres and because they spend of their wealth. Therefore, righteous women are obedient and guard secrets as Allah has also guarded secrets." The above sentence is about the same as: "Teachers are responsible for the development and well being of the students in their class. Therefore, good students are respectful and receptive". Now, obviously, the words "respectful" and "receptive", in this sentence imply being respectful and receptive with reference to the teacher - nobody else but the teacher. By the same token, in the sentence: "Men are responsible for their women . Therefore, righteous women are obedient and guard secrets", the word "obedient" can only be taken to mean obedient with reference to the husband. Furthermore, "guard secrets" also clearly refers to the secrets of a man about which his wife is naturally aware, because of the intimate relationship that exists between them. The referred implication of the word "qa'nita't" is so strong and clear that the verse itself could easily be sited as an evidence against the claim of the excerpted writer that "The word qanitat ("devoutly obedient") is used everywhere in the Qur'an as meaning obedience to Allah". In view of the above, I would like to express my difference with the excerpted interpretation of the verse under consideration. I hope this helps. Regards. The Learner