Title: The Islamic State and the Citizen Question/Comments: In your answer, you write: "...from a practical perspective, besides the establishment of Sala'h and the payment of Zaka'h , the state cannot 'extract' or enforce obedience upon its Muslim citizens..." Though I can quite easily envisage how the Islamic State might collect the Zakaah from the individual Muslim citizen, I do not quite see how the State can enforce the Salaah upon the Muslim. How can this be achieved from a practical perspective? Are there any examples the Prophet (p) or his Companions (ra) employed? From a practical point of view, the Prophet (p) would have had an easier task of making sure the individual Muslim kept his Salaah . But this would surely have got more difficult as the Muslim lands spread, and today it would indeed be quite a task. In your opinion how can any Muslim State enjoin the 'good' of praying the Salaah ? Further you write: "It does not necessarily mean that the state can force any person into praying or can beat a person who does not offer prayers." How else can an individual, who holds the status of a Muslim in an Islamic State, be made to enjoin the 'good' of performing his Salaah ? If he refuses, what are the consequences? Could it be that the verse you have quoted ( Surat-at-Taubah 9:5) is only directed at the Prophet (p). This would make sense, in light of the general aim of the entire chapter, especially the first few lines that order him and his followers to fight against those who have persecuted them and rejected the Message. In addition the allowance of the Prophet (p) to spread Religion by war, if necessary, it seems to me that this verse is aimed directly at him (not forgetting his position as head of state). At most verse 9:5 might be a general principle which any Muslim State must adhere to, i.e. it must make all provisions necessary for it's citizens to complete their obligatory Salaah . This way, the individual has no excuse not to perform his obligation to God. What is your opinion on this? Regarding the 'forbidding of evil', you write: "From the perspective of 'forbidding evil' the scope of the state authority has no limits." I understand this to mean that the Shari'ah has not proscribed any limits, though the Muslim Community would have to be consulted about any measures which the State would take to 'forbid evil'. Is my understanding correct? If not, surely the State can use this lack of limits to enforce anything upon the citizen of the State, under the guise of 'forbidding of evil'. I would just like to say Jazaakallah for answering my initial question. salaam `alaykum Razwan Answer: For my answer to your first question, please refer to one of my earlier responses to a similar question, titled: "Practical Problems relating to Ascertaining whether a Person offers Prayers or not?". You may access the referred response at: http://www.understanding-islam.com/related/discshow.jsp?point=3&id=779&dis_id=175 . Your write: How else can an individual, who holds the status of a Muslim in an Islamic State, be made to enjoin the 'good' of performing his Salaah ? If he refuses, what are the consequences? In my opinion, if a person refuses to offer his prayers, he shall then not be considered a Muslim citizen of the state and may, officially, be declared a non-Muslim. You further write: Could it be that the verse you have quoted ( Surat-at-Taubah 9:5) is only directed at the Prophet (p). I fully agree with you that the verse, like all the other verses of the Qur'an, is, in fact, directed at the first addressees of the Qur'an, which, in this case is the Prophet (pbuh) and his followers. However, because the verse is giving the criteria for deciding between the Muslims and the non-Muslims among the people, therefore, it would logically serve as a guide, regarding the said decision, for all generations to come. You further write: I understand this to mean that the Shari'ah has not proscribed any limits, though the Muslim Community would have to be consulted about any measures which the State would take to 'forbid evil'. Is my understanding correct? Your understanding is absolutely correct. All the laws of the state must be promulgated in a manner, which is in keeping with the prescribed Qur'anic principle of consultation. I hope this helps. Regards, Moiz Amjad January 8, 2002