Title: Further Clarification Regarding Jizya … Question/Comments: From what I gather of your opinion regarding "Itmaam al-Hujjah" , this was granted to either a Prophet who was also a Rasool , or, in the case of the Prophet Muhammad's (p) Companions (ra), to others whom God bestowed this favor upon. For this reason you cite that the killing of apostates is limited to those who rejected this "ultimate manifestation" (i.e. the Prophet (p) and his Companions (ra)). In one of your replies regarding Jizya you write: " Jizyah , according to the Qur'an was a part of the punishment of the non-acceptance of God's truth, after it had become manifest through the messenger of God in the Arabian Peninsula ( Al-Taubah 9: 29) and subsequently through the companions of the messenger for the rest of the world ( Al-Baqarah 2: 143)." From this I gather that the People of the Book (and other non-polytheistic beliefs) had the Jizya imposed on them, because they rejected the ultimate manifestation of God's truth. This ultimate manifestation was granted to the Messenger of Allah (p) and his Companions (ra). What I do not understand is if the killing of apostates was limited to those who rejected the ultimate manifestation of God's truth, how can Jizya still be paid by those who have not been subject to this ultimate manifestation? salaam `alaykum Razwan Answer: Your derivation is quite correct. In my opinion, Jizyah is not a universal tax imposed on non-Muslims for all times to come. Jizyah , according to my understanding of the Qur'an, was restricted to the rejecters among the direct addressees of either the Messenger (pbuh) or his companions. Regards, Moiz Amjad October 12, 2001