Title: A Further Clarification on the Number of Days of Creation Question/Comments: After reading over your response to Mr. Katz concerning the number of days for creation I had a few questions. First, I was always under the impression that the Qur'an did not imply particular numbers when it came to creation, but in fact referred to a large span of time. Second, the concept of "day" to my knowledge was not necessarily established in the days of the revelation of the Qur'an. In other words, there was no 24-hour clock etc. The concept was based on the sunrise and sunset, so is the implication that God made the world in two sunrises and sunsets such as the ones we experience now? If that is the case, was it not that in earlier times the length of the days were different than they are now and so at creation 2 days were a longer period of time? Third and most importantly, it seems like a limitation is placed upon the nature of God if His works are subjected to the boundaries of time. Surely, God states that if he wants something to be, he just says, "be". If an entity can create simply by saying "be", where would the concept of time, let alone two days come in? Answer: If my explanation of the word "day" as used in the related verses of the Qur'an is accepted to be true, then these verses would imply more or less the same meaning as you have mentioned. The only difference would be that the verses of the Qur'an would be specifically mentioning that this "large span of time" consisted of "six" periods. As far as your second observation is concerned, even if the modern clock came into general use around 1600 AD, yet it is quite obvious that the people of old were quite familiar with the concept of days, months and years. The use of clock has been to divide days into hours, minutes and seconds. The concept of a "day" is quite independent of the use of clocks. Moreover, as I have tried to establish that the implication of the word " yawm " in the Arabic language was nor restricted to the concept of the "sunrise to sunset" day. It was used for a "period of time" as well. If the related verses are seen in this perspective, it would be quite clear that whatever the length of days in the beginning of time, the implication of the verses is not greatly effected. Your third observation is because of a misconception of the Arabic words " Kun Fayaku'n ". You may kindly refer to one of my earlier articles in response to one of the criticisms on the Qur'an, which explains the implication of this phrase in the light of the Qur'an. I hope this helps. In case any aspect remains unclear, please feel free in writing back to me at your convenience. Regards